<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?><rss version="2.0"><channel><title>Bing: 1.17.1 Client.java</title><link>http://www.bing.com:80/search?q=1.17.1+Client.java</link><description>Search results</description><image><url>http://www.bing.com:80/s/a/rsslogo.gif</url><title>1.17.1 Client.java</title><link>http://www.bing.com:80/search?q=1.17.1+Client.java</link></image><copyright>Copyright © 2026 Microsoft. All rights reserved. These XML results may not be used, reproduced or transmitted in any manner or for any purpose other than rendering Bing results within an RSS aggregator for your personal, non-commercial use. Any other use of these results requires express written permission from Microsoft Corporation. By accessing this web page or using these results in any manner whatsoever, you agree to be bound by the foregoing restrictions.</copyright><item><title>知乎 - 有问题，就会有答案</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/question/276303327</link><description>我们可以从数学上证明 1+1=2，但是如何定义 1 是什么。如果说是 0 的后继数，那又如何定义 0 呢？</description><pubDate>Sun, 05 Apr 2026 14:10:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>1-1+1-1+1-1+1... 这个无穷数列的值是什么？如何证明？ - 知乎</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/question/19952889</link><description>知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。</description><pubDate>Mon, 06 Apr 2026 09:16:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>1/1+1/2+1/3+1/4+……+1/n=？怎么个解法？ - 知乎</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/question/46263998</link><description>红线是n-1到n的割线，绿线是n处的切线 图像上显然，割线的斜率大于切线的斜率。 所以我们有割线的斜率 \dfrac {\ln \left ( n\right) -\ln \left ( n-1\right) } {n-\left ( n-1\right) } 大于切线的斜率 \left ( \ln n\right) '=\dfrac {1} {n} 。 我们有 \ln n-\ln \left ( n-1\right) &gt;\dfrac {1} {n} 我们累加 \sum \left ( \ln n-\ln \left ( n-1\right ...</description><pubDate>Sun, 05 Apr 2026 22:17:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>知乎 - 知乎</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/selection/</link><description>知乎是一个中文互联网高质量问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，提供知识共享、互动交流和个人成长机会。</description><pubDate>Sun, 05 Apr 2026 13:06:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>False Proof of 1=-1 - Mathematics Stack Exchange</title><link>https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1901716/false-proof-of-1-1</link><description>1 Indeed what you are proving is that in the complex numbers you don't have (in general) $$\sqrt {xy}=\sqrt {x}\sqrt {y}$$ Because you find a counterexample.</description><pubDate>Fri, 03 Apr 2026 11:57:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>有问题，就会有答案 - 知乎</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/?lang=zh-Hant</link><description>知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。</description><pubDate>Sun, 05 Apr 2026 13:13:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>Word，插入多级列表，但是改了1.1，第二章的2.1也变成1.1，随着改变而改变，这种情况怎么处? - 知乎</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/question/393331884</link><description>知乎，中文互联网高质量的问答社区和创作者聚集的原创内容平台，于 2011 年 1 月正式上线，以「让人们更好的分享知识、经验和见解，找到自己的解答」为品牌使命。</description><pubDate>Sun, 05 Apr 2026 14:10:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>Why is $1$ not a prime number? - Mathematics Stack Exchange</title><link>https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/120/why-is-1-not-a-prime-number</link><description>50 actually 1 was considered a prime number until the beginning of 20th century. Unique factorization was a driving force beneath its changing of status, since it's formulation is quickier if 1 is not considered a prime; but I think that group theory was the other force.</description><pubDate>Sat, 04 Apr 2026 00:07:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>Why is $1/i$ equal to $-i$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange</title><link>https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1277038/why-is-1-i-equal-to-i</link><description>There are multiple ways of writing out a given complex number, or a number in general. Usually we reduce things to the "simplest" terms for display -- saying $0$ is a lot cleaner than saying $1-1$ for example. The complex numbers are a field. This means that every non-$0$ element has a multiplicative inverse, and that inverse is unique. While $1/i = i^ {-1}$ is true (pretty much by definition ...</description><pubDate>Sun, 05 Apr 2026 22:17:00 GMT</pubDate></item><item><title>为什么 1 不能被认为是质数？ - 知乎</title><link>https://www.zhihu.com/question/310998574</link><description>m = p 1 a 1 p 2 a 2 p 3 a 3 p n a n . 什么意思呢？ 它表示这样一个结论：对于任意的一个整数，你都能把它因数分解，而且结果是唯一的。 举个例子：1001只能被分解成7×11×13，而且你再也找不到除 (7,11,13)外的一组质数，使它们的乘积是1001。 那么这个定理有什么用呢？</description><pubDate>Sat, 04 Apr 2026 21:35:00 GMT</pubDate></item></channel></rss>